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I'm get tired of it too, but...
Dear group,
Can someone make the radon/lung cancer issues here a little simpler
so the average HP can understand them?
A linear, no threshold theory is a straight line going through
zero. Only the slope is a variable. And, at the exposure levels
we're discussing, it doesn't matter how you spread the exposure out
in a group (if risk is truly proportional to dose in a linear
manner). Anything else is not LNT.
Since it seems to be a given that the number one cause of lung
cancer is smoking, if you can do a reasonable job of adjusting for
smoking, you MIGHT be able to see other lung cancer cause/effect
relationships if they are 'big' enough. (If you can't properly
adjust for smoking, it will overwhelm any other effects you're
looking for).
The SECOND leading cause of lung cancer is (according to assertions
by the EPA) radon. IF this is true (and if you can properly adjust
for smoking as stated above), then looking at average radon
exposures and lung cancer rates in similar populations should
either show (1) a positive correlation or (2) nothing but random
scatter if the effect is too small to see. It should NOT
consistently show you a negative correlation, regardless of
'confounding' influences (which, by the definition at the top of
this paragraph, must be smaller than the number two cause of lung
cancer, and which would have no reason to 'join forces' and
confound in the same direction.)
Turning the last sentence around, if you DO see a negative
correlation between radon exposures and lung cancer rates, you can
say either (1) the negative correlation is due to the radon
exposure (which would be suggestive of hormesis) or (2) the
negative correlation is due to something other than radon (which
implies that radon exposure should be much further down the list
than the 'Number two cause of lung cancer'. Notice that this ALSO
implies that the currently accepted LNT regarding radon is wrong,
if it can be overwhelmed so easily by 'something else').
If you misinterpret confounding factors, you shouldn't get a
negative correlation - you should get 'noise'. For example, I
suppose you can take issue with whether average radon
concentrations in a county are truly representative of average lung
exposures, but how likely is it that average radon concentrations
in a county are REVERSED from average individual exposures?
What Dr. Cohen seems to be saying (and please correct me if I am
wrong, Dr. Cohen) is simply that the relationship between county
radon concentrations and lung cancer rates is the opposite of what
you would expect if the current LNT regarding radon is true. He
does not say that the cancer rates are 'caused' by anything. The
arguements against this conclusion, while they may also be valid,
have been far too obscure for me to follow.
I do not fancy myself to be an epidemiologist, but I have been
exposed to some of the basic concepts, so, IN RELATIVELY SIMPLE
TERMS PLEASE, is my understanding right or wrong, and if wrong, why
is it wrong? (And if it is wrong, we'd better look at HP education
in this country, because I base my thinking on what I thought the
HP education process was trying to impart.)
Thanks,
Vincent King
vincent.king@doegjpo.com
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